This was something touched on in another thread, and since I don't want to hi-jack that one, I thought we should start another here instead.
Now I do realise that this subject can be a rather touchy one, so I am going to say from the outset that I will do my very best to keep this calm and polite. I am also going to set out here exactly what I am talking about, so there's less chance of misunderstanding, but if you want to bring in other suggestions I don't mind. However, the only thing I would ask is that if we're going to mention sources, we try and do this adequately... often what a scholar is supposed to have said and what they actually did say are two quite different things.
I appreciate this may not go very far, but I thought it could be enlightening for all of us....
So, to kick off:
1. There is a theory that the Witch-Hunts/burning times were a response by the Christian Church to get rid of surviving pagan/heathen beliefs and practices.
2. There is yet another theory that some sort of homogenous 'Witch Cult' (I'm not even trying to offer a definition of this here) survived from ancient times and that this was what most of those persecuted as witches were actually practising.
Now I have one or two problems with theory 1, but this is because I think witch-hunts and the inquisition (sorry, but I cannot bring myself to use that bloody term Burning Times) were not JUST about paganism. Many of those persecuted were classed as heretics which is something else entirely.
However, I personally do believe that SOME pre-Christian beliefs and practices were surprisingly resilient and persisted in some forms into modern times. I realise not everyone is going to agree with this... I've based my claim on things like some of the early Anglo-Saxon authors such as Bede and also on things like Church architecture (e.g. the Green Man etc.)
Theory Number 2 is more extreme. I think it would be extremely difficult to prove, although I don't believe that witchcraft began in the 1950s with Gerald Gardiner.
There are a few interesting claims (including one by Webb, an inspect of ancient monuments in WW2 who reckoned he had discovered a number of stone phalluses inside early medieval altars.) It's an astonishing claim, but one I have found almost impossible to track down.
Webb apparently reckoned the government/authorities deliberately mislaid the evidence he had presented to them. It's easy to scoff - but what if he was right? It's possible - not provable, is all I'm prepared to say about that.
I would be very interested to know what others here think.
Now I do realise that this subject can be a rather touchy one, so I am going to say from the outset that I will do my very best to keep this calm and polite. I am also going to set out here exactly what I am talking about, so there's less chance of misunderstanding, but if you want to bring in other suggestions I don't mind. However, the only thing I would ask is that if we're going to mention sources, we try and do this adequately... often what a scholar is supposed to have said and what they actually did say are two quite different things.
I appreciate this may not go very far, but I thought it could be enlightening for all of us....
So, to kick off:
1. There is a theory that the Witch-Hunts/burning times were a response by the Christian Church to get rid of surviving pagan/heathen beliefs and practices.
2. There is yet another theory that some sort of homogenous 'Witch Cult' (I'm not even trying to offer a definition of this here) survived from ancient times and that this was what most of those persecuted as witches were actually practising.
Now I have one or two problems with theory 1, but this is because I think witch-hunts and the inquisition (sorry, but I cannot bring myself to use that bloody term Burning Times) were not JUST about paganism. Many of those persecuted were classed as heretics which is something else entirely.
However, I personally do believe that SOME pre-Christian beliefs and practices were surprisingly resilient and persisted in some forms into modern times. I realise not everyone is going to agree with this... I've based my claim on things like some of the early Anglo-Saxon authors such as Bede and also on things like Church architecture (e.g. the Green Man etc.)
Theory Number 2 is more extreme. I think it would be extremely difficult to prove, although I don't believe that witchcraft began in the 1950s with Gerald Gardiner.
There are a few interesting claims (including one by Webb, an inspect of ancient monuments in WW2 who reckoned he had discovered a number of stone phalluses inside early medieval altars.) It's an astonishing claim, but one I have found almost impossible to track down.
Webb apparently reckoned the government/authorities deliberately mislaid the evidence he had presented to them. It's easy to scoff - but what if he was right? It's possible - not provable, is all I'm prepared to say about that.
I would be very interested to know what others here think.
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